PM Yashasvi 11th Class Science Model Paper 2 | Yashasvi Important Questions

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PM Yashasvi 11th Class Science Model Paper 2 | Yashasvi Important Questions

PM Yashasvi 11th Class Science Model Paper 2

126. Reflex arc is formed by
(a) muscle → brain → receptor
(b) muscle → spinal cord → receptor
(c) receptor → brain → muscles
(d) receptor → spinal cord → muscle
Answer: d

127. Which of the following tissues provide control and coordination in animals?
(a) Nervous and Skeletal
(b) Muscular and Skeletal
(c) Muscular and Transport
(d) Nervous and Muscular
Answer: d

128. A student accidentally places her hand on a flame of candle and quickly pulls her hand away. The flame represents
(a) a response
(b) a stimulus
(c) an impulse
(d) an effector
Answer: b

129. How many pairs of cranial nerves are present in man?
(a) 12
(b) 21
(c) 31
(d) 41
Answer: a

130. Reflex actions are mediated through
(a) brain
(b) effectors
(c) spinal cord
(d) receptors
Answer: c

131. The leaves of Mimosa are sensitive to
(a) light
(b) smell
(c) touch
(d) heat
Answer: c

132. Which statement is incorrect about auxins?
(a) They promote the growth of root
(b) They promote the growth of shoot
(c) They influence the formation of flower and ripening of fruit
(d) They inhibit the growth of root
Answer: a

133. The hormone that is used to keep flowers fresh is
(a) cytokinin
(b) gibberellins
(c) auxin
(d) abscisic acid
Answer: a

134. The main effect of cytokinin in plants is to
(a) improve the quality of fruits
(b) prevent the growth of lateral buds
(c) regulate opening and closing of stomata
(d) stimulate cell division
(e) increase the length of intemodes on flowering stems
Answer: d

135. Abscisic acid controls
(a) cell elongation and cell wall formation
(b) shoot elongation
(c) cell division
(d) leaf fall and dormancy
Answer: d

136. Which endocrine gland is also known as ‘master gland’?
(a) Pancreas
(b) Adrenal
(c) Pituitary
(d) Hypothalamus
Answer: c

137. Which of the following acts as both endocrine and exocrine glands?
(a) Adrenal
(b) Pituitary
(c) Ovaries
(d) Pancreas
Answer: d

138. Which hormone regulates the ionic balance in the body?
(a) Glucagon
(b) Thyroxine
(c) Testosterone
(d) Vasopressin
Answer: d

139. Which of the following is not a ductless gland?
(a) Adrenal
(b) Liver
(c) Thyroid
(d) Pituitary
Answer: b

140. Ageing in human beings is caused by the disappearance of which of the following glands?
(a) Adrenal
(b) Pituitary
(c) Thyroid
(d) Thymus
Answer: d

141. Which of the following statements is correct about receptors? [NCERT Exemplar Problems]
(a) Gustatory receptors detect taste while olfactory receptors detect smell
(b) Both gustatory and olfactory receptors detect smell
(c) Auditory receptors detect smell and olfactory receptors detect taste
(d) Olfactory receptors detect taste and gustatory receptors smell
Answer: a

142. Which of the following is not associated with growth of plant? [NCERT Exemplar Problems]
(a) Auxin
(b) Gibberellins
(c) Cytokinins
(d) Abscisic acid
Answer: d

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143. Involuntary actions in the body are controlled by [NCERT Exemplar Problems]
(a) medulla in forebrain
(b) medulla in midbrain
(c) medulla in hindbrain
(d) medulla in spinal cord
Answer: c

144. Butanal is known by what name?
a) n-Butanaldehyde
b) α-Butanaldehyde
c) n-Butyraldehyde
d) α-Butyraldehyde
Answer: c

145. 3-Phenylprop-2-enal is another name for the chemical _________
a) Crotonaldehyde
b) Cinnamaldehyde
c) Salicylaldehyde
d) Vanillin
Answer: b

146. Why are Germanium hydrides called _____________
a) silanes
b) germanes
c) stannum
d) plumbane
Answer: b

147. Which of the following elements from Group 14 is a metal?
a) Germanium
b) Carbon
c) Stannum
d) Silicon
Answer: c

148. What exactly is the fajan’s rule?
a) electronegativity
b) ionic compounds
c) Oxidation State
d) covalent compounds
Answer: c

149. Which of the following carbon allotropes is amorphous?
a) Diamond
b) Fullerenes
c) Graphite
d) Lampblack
Answer: d

150. Which of the following does not belong to the group of Doberiener’s triad?
a) Li, Na, and K
b) He, Na and Ar
c) Ca, Sr and Ba
d) CL, Br and I
Answer: b

151. Which of the following is the good conductor of electricity?
(a) Paper
(b) Iron
(c) Glass
(d) Ebonite
Answer: (b) Iron

152. The SI unit of electric current is
(a) Volt
(b) Faraday
(c) Ampere
(d) Ohms
Answer: (c) Ampere

153. Electrical resistivity of a metallic wire depends upon its
(a) Length
(b) Material
(c) Thickness
(d) Shape
Answer: (b) Material

154. Electric current is measured using
(a) Galvanometer
(b) Ammeter
(c) Voltmeter
(d) Potentiometer
Answer: (b) Ammeter

155. Unit of electric power may also be expressed as
(a) Watt second
(b) Ampere hour
(c) Volt second
(d) Kilowatt hour
Answer: (d) Kilowatt hour

156. Materials which do not allow electricity to pass through are known as
(a) Semiconductor
(b) Conductor
(c) Insulator
(d) Semi-insulator
Answer: (c) Insulator

157. Tungsten is used in which of the following?
(a) Metal extraction
(b) Electric bulb
(c) Insulators
(d) Textile manufacturing
Answer: (b) Electric bulb

158. Electric potential is a
(a) Vector quantity
(b) Scalar quantity
(c) Dimensionless quantity
(d) None of the option
Answer: (b) Scalar quantity

159. Copper is used in electric transmission lines because
(a) High resistivity
(b) Low resistivity
(c) No resistivity
(d) None of the option
Answer: (b) Low resistivity

160. The SI unit of resistance is
(a) Volt
(b) Faraday
(c) Ampere
(d) Ohm
Answer: (d) Ohm

161. Magnetic field lines emerge from
(a) South pole
(b) North Pole
(c) Center of magnet
(d) None of the option
Answer: (b) North Pole

162. Magnetic field is a
(a) Scalar quantity
(b) Vector quantity
(c) Dimensionless quantity
(d) None of the option
Answer: (b) Vector quantity

163. Overloading happens due to
(a) Short circuits
(b) Decrease in power supply
(c) Increase in power supply
(d) Option (a) and (c)
Answer: (d) Option (a) and (c)

164. Which of the following is used to detect the presence of current in a circuit?
(a) Meter bridge
(b) Sonometer
(c) Galvanometer
(d) Electric motor
Answer: (c) Galvanometer

165. Unit of electric power may also be expressed as
(a) Watt second
(b) Ampere hour
(c) Volt ampere
(d) Kilowatt hour
Answer: (c) Switch

166. Unit of electric power may also be expressed as
(a) Watt second
(b) Ampere hour
(c) Volt ampere
(d) Kilowatt hour
Answer: (c) Volt ampere

167. ——————– is a closed-loop or path formed by the network of electrical components, where
electrons flow.
(a) Electric Potential
(b) Electric Circuit
(c) Electric Path
(d) Electric Difference
Answer: (b) Electric Circuit

168. ———————– is the device used to convert electrical energy into mechanical energy.
(a) Galvanometer
(b) Ammeter
(c) Electric motor
(d) Potentiometer
Answer: (c) Electric motor

169. The potential difference between a live wire and a neutral wire is ——————.
(a) 100 V
(b) 280 V
(c) 220 V
(d) 0 V
Answer: (c) 220 V

170. The force exerted on a current-carrying wire placed in a magnetic field is zero when the angle
between the wire and the direction of the magnetic field is ——————.
(a) 180 degree
(b) 45 degree
(c) 90 degree
(d) 60 degree
Answer: (a) 180 degree

171. Nuclear energy is a ————.
(a) Renewable sources of energy
(b) Non-renewable sources of energy
(c) Neither renewable and non-renewable sources of energy
(d) None of the option
Answer: (b) Non-renewable sources of energy

172. Which among the following causes environmental pollution?
(a) Biomass
(b) Solar energy
(c) Coal
(d) Wind
Answer: (c) Coal

173. ———— is used in thermal power plants.
(a) Uranium
(b) Thorium
(c) Air
(d) Fossil fuels
Answer: (d) Fossil fuels

174. Why is biogas considered a ‘good’ source of energy?
(a) as it burns with releasing smoke
(b) as it burns without releasing smoke
(c) as it burns without oxygen
(d) None of the option
Answer: (b) as it burns without releasing smoke

175. The component of biogas is ———-.
(a) Uranium
(b) Thorium
(c) Methane
(d) Hydrochloric acid
Answer: (c) Methane

176. The gravitational pull of ———— causes the rise of sea-water during high tides.
(a) Venus
(b) Pluto
(c) Sun
(d) Moon
Answer: (d) Moon

177. The power generated in a windmill ———–.
(a) depends on the tower height
(b) depends on wind velocity
(c) does not depend on wind velocity
(d) depends on the trees surrounding it
Answer: (b) Depends on wind velocity

178. Carbon dioxide causes ————.
(a) White house effect
(b) Red house effect
(c) Blackhouse effect
(d) Greenhouse effect
Answer: (d) Greenhouse effect

179. Non-conventional sources of energy are ————.
(a) Exhaustible
(b) Inexhaustible
(c) Neither exhaustible nor inexhaustible
(d) Too expensive
Answer: (a) Inexhaustible

180. Biogas is also known as ————.
(a) Fuel gas
(b) Ethane gas
(c) Gobar gas
(d) Petroleum gas
Answer: (c) Gobar gas

181. What is the rate of chemical reaction?
a) Chemical reaction rate is a chemical property
b) Chemical reaction rate is a physical property
c) Chemical reaction rate is an intensive property
d) Chemical reaction rate is an extensive property
Answer: c

182. The term “catalyst” refers to ___________
a) Can either increase or decrease the speed of a chemical reaction
b) Alters the value of equilibrium constant in a reversible chemical reaction
c) Increases the speed of a chemical reaction
d) Decreases the speed of a chemical reaction
Answer: a

183. The reaction order is determined by
a) Power of any one of the reactant concentrations
b) Number of molecules of reactants taking part in the reaction
c) Sum of the powers of the concentrations of all the reactants
d) Concentration of intermediate species formed
Answer: c

184. The rate of homogeneous response is influenced by a number of factors.
a) Temperature only
b) Pressure only
c) Reactant Concentration only
d) Temperature, pressure and reactant concentration
Answer: d

185. A reaction’s rate cannot be expressed in terms of time.
a) Volume of reacting fluid
b) Volume of solid
c) Amount of product
d) Interfacial surface
Answer: c

186. The number of molecules engaged in an elementary reaction is referred to as ____
a) Molecularity
b) Order of reaction
c) Unimolecular reaction
d) Rate of reaction
Answer: a

187. Only liquid pressure is measured with which of the following instruments?
a) Differential Manometer
b) Manometer
c) Piezometer
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c

188. Which of the following statements concerning basic reactions is correct?
a) They occur in multiple steps
b) They are complex in nature
c) Order of elementary reaction is an integer
d) All first order reactions are elementary
Answer: c

189. A state function is which of the following?
a) Entropy
b) Heat
c) Work
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a

190. What is the conservation of Bernoulli’s Equation?
a) Pressure
b) Energy
c) Mass
d) Momentum
Answer: b

191. According to Robert Boyle, which of the following is not an acid’s property?
a) turns blue Litmus red
b) sour in taste
c) neutralize bases
d) bitter in taste
Answer: d

192. A proton donor is a chemical that
a) protongenic
b) protophilic
c) amphoteric
d) amphiprotic
Answer: a

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193. Which of the following compounds can’t be used as an acid and a base at the same time?
a) amphoteric substance
b) amphiprotic substance
c) ampholyte
d) protophilic
Answer: d

194. Lewis concept does explain the behaviour of __________
a) bases
b) salts
c) protonic acids
d) amphoteric substances
Answer: c

195. Which of the following is not a Lewis acid?
a) aluminium chloride
b) sodium ion
c) sulphur tetrafluoride
d) hydroxide ion
Answer: d

196. The PH of which of the following is more than 7?
a) gastric juice
b) vinegar
c) blood plasma
d) lemon juice
Answer: c

197. What is the Neutralization process in reverse?
a) formation
b) hydrolysis
c) reaction
d) splitting
Answer: b

198. Acid strength increases in the order of _____________
a) HI ≪ HCl ≪ HBr ≪ HF
b) HF ≪ HBr ≪ HCl ≪ HI
c) HF ≪ HCl ≪ HBr ≪ HI
d) HCl ≪ HF ≪ HBr ≪ HI
Answer: c

199. Amphoteric molecules include which of the following?
a) Acetic acid
b) Malic acid
c) Sugars
d) Water
Answer: d

200. Which sort of acid is CH3OH?
a) Bronsted acid
b) Lewis acid
c) Arrhenius acid
d) Lewis and Arrhenius acid
Answer: a

201. During favourable conditions, Amoeba reproduces by
(a) multiple fission
(b) binary fission
(c) budding
(d) fragmentation
Answer: b

202. A feature of reproduction that is common to Amoeba, Yeast and Spirogyra is that
(a) they reproduce asexually
(b) they are all unicellular
(c) they reproduce only sexually
(d) they are all multicellular
Answer: a

203. The ability of a cell to divide into several cells during reproduction in Plasmodium is called
(a) budding
(b) multiple fission
(c) binary fission
(d) reduction division
Answer: b

204. Bryophyllum can be propagated vegetatively by the
(a) stem
(b) leaf
(c) root
(d) flower
Answer: b

205. Vegetative propagation refers to formation of new plants from
(a) stem, flowers and fruits
(b) stem, leaves and flowers
(c) stem, roots and flowers
(d) stem, roots and leaves
Answer: d

206. In a potato, vegetative propagation takes place by:
(a) root
(b) leaf
(c) stem tuber
(d) grafting
Answer: c

207. Vegetatively propagated plants
(a) do not bear roots
(b) do not bear buds
(c) are genetically similar
(d) are genetically dissimilar
Answer: c

208. Spirogyra reproduce by
(a) budding
(b) fragmentation
(c) regeneration
(d) fission
Answer: b

209. In Rhizopus, tubular thread like structures bearing sporangia at their tips are called
(a) filaments
(b) hyphae
(c) rhizoids
(d) roots
Answer: b

210. Plants like banana, rose, jasmine, orange have lost the capacity to produce
(a) seeds
(b) buds
(c) flower
(d) roots
Answer: a

211. The flower of the Hibiscus plant is
(a) bisexual
(b) unisexual
(c) neuter
(d) very small
Answer: a

212. The part of the flower which is present in the centre of the flower is
(a) Sepals
(b) Petals
(c) Carpels
(d) Stamens
Answer: c

213. The seed that contains the future plant is called the
(a) cotyledons
(b) seed coat
(c) germ cells
(d) embryo
Answer: d

214. The period of pregnancy is called
(a) gestation period
(b) incubation period
(c) ovulation
(d) menstruation period
Answer: a

215. The process of release of eggs from the ovary is called
(a) menstruation
(b) reproduction
(c) insemination
(d) ovulation
Answer: d

216. The period during adolescence when the reproductive tissues begin to mature is called
(a) ovyfetion
(b) puberty
(c) germination
(d) propagation
Answer: b

217. In human beings, the fertilization occurs in the
(a) uterus (b) ovaries
(c) fallopian tubes (d) vagina
Answer: c

218. Along the path of the vas-deferens the secretions of which gland provide nutrition to the sperms?
(a) Prostate glands
(b) Seminal vesicles
(c) Scrotum
(d) Urinary bladder
Answer: b

219. The embryo in humans gets nutrition from the mother’s blood with the help of a special tissue called
(a) Placenta
(b) Villi
(c) Uterus
(d) Womb
Answer: a

220. Which among the following diseases is not sexually transmitted?
(a) Syphyllis
(b) Hepatitis
(c) HIV-AIDS
(d) Gonorrhea
Answer: b

221. Which of the following method of contraception protects from acquiring sexually trans¬mitted diseases?
(a) Surgery
(b) Condoms
(c) Copper-T
(d) Oral-pills
Answer: b

222. In human males, the testes lie in the scrotum, because it helps in the
(a) process of mating
(b) formation of sperms
(c) easy transfer of gametes
(d) secretion of estrogen
Answer: b

223. There is a greater possibility for the evolution of a new species in organisms which reproduce by
(a) binary fission
(b) budding
(c) fertilisation
(d) regeneration
Answer: c

224. Which is the most common method of reproduction in majority of fungi and bacteria?
(a) Budding
(b) Spore formation
(c) Binary fission
(d) Multiple fission
Answer: b

225. Which of the following is not an artificial method of vegetative propagation?
(a) Cutting
(b) Layering
(c) Budding
(d) Grafting
Answer: c

226. Many unicellular organisms reproduce by the process of
(a) fission
(b) ovulation
(c) regeneration
(d) non-disjunction
Answer: a

227. The ability of an organism to develop whole body from a broken piece or fragment is called
(a) binary fission
(b) budding
(c) multiple fission
(d) regeneration
Answer: d

228. Pollen grains are produced by
(a) ovary
(b) ovule
(c) apther
(d) corolla
Answer: c

229. The fertilisation of human egg by the sperm takes place in
(a) vagina
(b) uterus
(c) ovary
(d) oviduct
Answer: d

230. Which of the following is a primary sex organ in a mammal?
(a) Ovary
(b) Vagina
(c) Uterus
(d) Mammaiy glands
Answer: a

231. The ability to reproduce is lost in a female after
(a) fertilisation
(b) menstruation
(c) gamete formation
(d) menopause
Answer: d

232. When a sperm is deposited into the vagina which route does it travel?
(a) Vagina → Oviduct → Uterus → Cervix
(b) Vagina → Ovary → Uterus → Oviduct
(c) Vagina → Cervix → Uterus → Oviduct
(d) Vagina → Uterus → Cervix → Oviduct
Answer: c

233. In case the ova does not fertilise, which of the following events will take place?
(a) Menstruation
(b) Pregnancy
(c) Implantation
(d) Ovulation
Answer: a

234. When the foetus is growing inside the uterus it needs nutrients. Which part provides these nutrients?
(a) Placenta
(b) Amniotic sac
(c) Oviduct
(d) Uterus
Answer: a

235. What marks the beginning of the reproductive life of a woman?
(a) Menopause
(b) Menarche
(c) Fertilisation
(d) Ovulation
Answer: b

236. Where does fertilisation take place?
(a) Uterus
(b) Vagina
(c) Fallopian tube
(d) Cervix
Answer: c

237. A pair of duct arising from testis, which carry sperms are
(a) fallopian tube
(b) vas deferens
(c) oviduct
(d) urethra
Answer: b

238. In the list of organisms given below, those that reproduce by the asexual method are [NCERT Exemplar Problems]
(i) banana
(ii) dog
(iii) yeast
(iv) Amoeba
(a) (ii) and (iv)
(b) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iv)
(d) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer: b

239. The primary ore of aluminium is which of the following?
a) Kaolinite b) Bauxite
c) Malachite d) Cinnabar
Answer: b

240. Which of the following is not an appropriate ore for iron extraction?
a) Hematite b) Magnetite
c) Siderite d) Iron Pyrites
Answer: d

241. Cinnabar is used to extract which metal?
a) Zinc
b) Copper
c) Iron
d) Mercury
Answer: d

242. Aluminium does not have which of the following properties?
a) Aluminium is a poor conductor of heat and electricity
b) Aluminium is light in weight
c) It readily dissolves in HCl
d) Aluminium is highly resistant to corrosion
Answer: a

243. Which of the following isn’t a cobalt property?
a) Cobalt is a lustrous white metal
b) It is attacked by alkalies
c) Cobalt is malleable
d) Cobalt is ductile
Answer: b

244. Which one of the following is not a zinc ore?
a) Limonite
b) Zincite
c) Calamine
d) Franklinite
Answer: a

245. When magnesium is alloyed with which of the following elements, the tendency to break under stress is not reduced?
a) Aluminum
b) Silicon
c) Zinc
d) Copper
Answer: d

246. Copper and zinc alloy is known as __________
a) Brass
b) Bronze
c) Duralumin
d) Nichrome
Answer: a

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247. The main component of Duralumin alloy is ____________
a) Copper
b) Nickel
c) Iron
d) Aluminum
Answer: d

248. In calamine, what is the zinc concentration?
a) 98 percent
b) 94 percent
c) 86 percent
d) 74 percent
Answer: a

249. Hydrocarbons are organic molecules that contain the element carbon.
a) Hydrogen
b) Oxygen
c) Carbon
d) Both hydrogen and carbon
Answer: d

250. Give the name of the benzene acylation procedure.
a) Friedel craft reaction
b) Wurtz reaction
c) Wurtz fitting reaction
d) Debey Huckel reaction
Answer: a

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